2013年9月30日星期一

HP certification HP3-C24 exam training materials

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Exam Code: HP3-C24
Exam Name: HP (Pay For Print Sales)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 29 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How is the turnover of the Pay for Print contracts reflected in the quarterly sell-out report from HP?
A.Pay For Print is considered and reflected like normal supplies business.
B.Pay For Print provides specific upfront-discounts, as a result the turnover cannot be reflected
C.Only if the partner is a member of the OPS contract sell-out program, the turnover is reflectedas
normal supplies business.
D.50% of the contract turnover is reflected asnormalsupplies business.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is price protection?
A.protected prices for the supplies during the contract period
B.protected prices for service and supplies during the contract period
C.protected prices for the hardware during the contract period
D.protected prices for the hardware, service and supplies during the contract period
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is HP Pay For Print invoiced?
A.The HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer invoice at the end of the month on
behalf of the partner.
B.The HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer invoice once a quarter on behaff of
the partner
C.At the end of the contract period, the HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer
invoice.
D.Every quarter the Pay For Print service provider will inform HP to create the customer invoice.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is HP currently not offering a dedicated pricing tool for the PFP program?
A.Thecalculationswithin the program are so simple that there is no need for a dedicated pricing
tool.
B.The calculations can be done via the general HP contract calculator available at the HP Smart
Portal.
C.The service provider does all contract calculations for the PFP partner.
D.Due to technical reasons the development of the tool was delayed, but HP will release a
dedicated PFP pricing tool in 2011.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many invoices are sent to the customer during the lifetime of the contract?
A.1
B.12
C.24
D.36
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C27
Exam Name: HP (SMB Printing and Imaging sales)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What has been the effect of the global economic downturn on printing and imaging? (Select two.)
A. Fewer pages are being printed.
B. Refilled and remanufactured ink cartridges have increased in quality.
C. All new product purchases are on hold.
D. Printing and imaging product lifecycles are longer.
E. Inkjet printers are replacing laser printers.
Answer: B, C

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NO.2 What is the fundamental difference between the HP print business in the 1980s and their print business
today?
A. In the 1980s, HP business focused around the provision print services.
B. In the 1980s, HP business focused simply around the sale of printers.
C. In the 1980s, HP business focused around data center printing.
D. In the 1980s, HP business focused around printer support contracts.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can resellers use print management engagement to increase revenue and profit?
A. Resellers can up-sell from color printers to mono-only printers.
B. Resellers can move from transactional sales to selling service-based contracts.
C. Resellers can up-sell from HP Laser printer to HP Large Format printers.
D. Resellers can move from selling HP PCs and servers to selling HP ProCurve products.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the prediction for the number of digitally printed pages as a percentage of all pages?
A. 70%
B. 90%
C. 10%
D. 0.5%
Answer: B

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NO.5 According to HP and other market segmentations, how many employees would you expect to find in a
lower mid-market organization.?
A. 100 to 499 employees
B. 2000 to 2999 employees
C. 400 to 599 employees
D. 999 to1999 employees
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-K01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which HP remote application continuously monitors hardware and sends an alert to HP when an
error occurs?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. Open Service Event Manager
C. Instant SupportEnterprise Edition
D. Integrated Management Log Viewer
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are installing a new InifiniBand Mezzanine card into a customer's BL480c server blade. The
mezzanine card is installed into mezzanine slot 2.
Which interconnect location must the InifiniBand controller be installed into?
A. bays 3-4
B. bays 5-6
C. bays 7-8
D. Placement of the controller does not matter. The Onboard Administrator will properly map
theInifiniband mezzanine card to the installed Infiniband Interconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which HP StorageWorks arrays can be used with the HP BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. MSA 20
B. MSA 30
C. MSA 500
D. MSA 1000
E. MSA 1500cs
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Which c-Class BL series server blade supports 4 internal SAS drives?
A. BL460c
B. BL480c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which GUI utility diagnoses system bottlenecks and is easily integrated with HP Systems Insight
Manager?
A. HP Control Tower for HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant Essentials Workload Management Pack
C. HPProLiant Essentials Performance Management Pack
D. HPProLiant Essentials Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.6 How many BL30p servers can be supported by a fully populated 1U p-Class power enclosure?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which item is required to power on and troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. Diagnostic Station and adapter
B. Server Blade Management Module
C. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
D. You cannot power on and troubleshoot a p-Class blade that has been removed from its
enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which processor types are offered on the BL460c? (Select two)
A. AMDOpteron Processor
B. Dual-Core Intel EM64T processor
C. Intel Itanium 2 Madison processor
D. Intel Itanium 2 Montecito processor
E. Quad-Core Intel EM64T processor
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 During which portion of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you carefully observe and record
the results of each step including any error messages or changes in functionality?
A. Step 1 - Collect data
B. Step 3 - Develop the action plan
C. Step 4 - Execute the action plan
D. Step 6 - Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 2?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Identify the steps necessary to implement each solution.
C. Identify the possible solution for each possible root cause.
D. Determine and use the most appropriate tools for each situation.
Answer: A

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NO.11 If you suspect the hard drive or hard drive subsystem may be at fault in a system, which HP tools
can isolate the source of the problem? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What happens if a server blade is moved from an enclosure managed by Virtual Connect to an
enclosure that is not managed by Virtual Connect?
A. MAC address and WWNs must be changed manually for the server blade.
B. Local MAC addresses are automatically returned to the original factory defaults.
C. After boot, server blades will gain access to the network as soon as the server and interconnect
modules are ready.
D. The configuration of the server blade is automatically updated before it is allowed to power on
and connect to the network.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer reports that an InfiniBand switch does not power on. What is a possible cause of this
problem?
A. Dynamic Power Saver is not activated on theInfiniBand switch.
B. A three-phase power system should be used withInfiniBand switches.
C. At least one server blade is not equipped with Host Channel Adapter (HCA) card.
D. The Onboard Administrator version firmware does not supportInfiniBand switches.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your customer has eight BL20p G3 servers all with Fibre Channel mezzanine cards. They also
have a GbE2 switch installed with a Brocade switch attached.
None of their servers can access external shared storage (MSA1500cs). What should you verify
first?
A. if the BL20p G3 has a 4Gb or fasterFibre Channel card
B. if the Brocade switch has an IP address assigned by DHCP
C. ifFibre Channel pass through is installed on the GbE2 switches
D. if Selective Storage Presentation (SSP) is enabled on the MSA1500cs
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which ProLiant Essentials Foundation Pack CD can run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)?
A. Diagnostic CD
B. SmartStart CD
C. Management CD
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: B

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NO.16 You work with an enclosure equipped with ten fans and sixteen half-height servers. Two fans
failed.
In which slots must you insert the remaining fans to keep all sixteen servers working?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, 10
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which utility allows you to easily install and provision one or many blade servers in an unattended,
automated fashion?
A. Virtual Install Disk
B. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: B

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NO.18 In which situation are qualified rack options covered by the HP BladeSystem c-Class Care Pack
services?
A. when the options are installed in the same rack
B. when the rack is fully populated with p-Class blades
C. when the options are used only with blade equipment
D. when the options are purchased with the c7000 enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the maximum number of DIMMs that can be installed into an HP Integrity BL860c Server
Blade?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 16
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which HP cooling technology uses power management to control CPU power state automatically
based on application demand?
A. Active Cool fans
B. Dynamic Power Saver
C. Modular Cooling System
D. ProLiant Power Regulator
Answer: D

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NO.21 Your customer wants a solution that allows them to remotely deploy operating systems without
having to interact directly with each server blade or hiring additional IT staff.
Which product should they install to accomplish this goal?
A. HP Version Control Agent
B. HP Rapid Deployment Pack
C. HP Remote Deployment Utility
D. HP Vulnerability and Patch Management
E. HP Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which online tool can be utilized to plan the power requirements for an HP Integrity BL860c
Blade?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP Knowledge Base
C. HPBladeSystem Sizer
D. HP Power Analysis & Planner
Answer: C

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NO.23 You installed new server blades into an HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure.
How does the enclosure indicate if a server blade is not installed correctly?
A. The HPBladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnect to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which management functionality is provided by the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. manages shared power and cooling for the enclosure
B. provides management Ethernet fabric for the enclosure
C. provides HP SIM (System Insight Manager) functionality for Blade servers
D. activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
E. automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software
Answer: A,B

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NO.25 You are performing maintenance at a customer's site and they are booting an HP BladeSystem p-
Class server from a storage area network (SAN). You must configure the server with a virtual boot
device that enables the server to fetch boot-loading instructions from the SAN.
How is the virtual boot device presented to the host server?
A. as a Logical Unit Number (LUN) on the disk array
B. as a Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE) NIC
C. as aFibre channel Host Bus Adapter (HBA) on the target server
D. as a Deployment Server database attached to the target server
Answer: A

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NO.26 Your customer requires software that will help keep HP software and drivers installed on c-Class
blade servers up-to-date. They want a low-cost solution.
What should you recommend to this customer? (Select two)
A. HP Client Manager
B. HP Virtualization Software
C. Version Control Agent (VCA)
D. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
E. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack (VPM)
Answer: C,D

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NO.27 Some servers within a customer data center turn off because of overheating. You have an air
conditioning specification and want to compare this information with the amount of heat generated
by the servers.
Which HP tool provides this information?
A. Product Bulletin
B. Power Calculator
C. Data Center Sizer
D. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
Answer: B

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NO.28 You need to update Integrated Lights-Outs (iLO) card firmware, but you do not have physical
access to the server.
How can you accomplish this task?
A. useiLO web interface
B. use System Software Manager
C. use Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
D. use Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) software
Answer: A

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NO.29 You added an interconnect switch in an HP BladeSystem c-Class and the switch does not power
up. What should you check? (Select three.)
A. interconnect type and location
B. position of the mezzanine cards
C. position of the power supplies in the enclosure
D. status of the first full-height server blade in the enclosure
E. enclosure and switch status in the Onboard Administrator
F. whether interconnect bay has been activated for the bay the switch is in
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.30 A customer wants to install five full-height blade servers into a c-Class enclosure that is running
N+N power supply redundancy mode.
How many power supplies are required to support this configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B65
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the HP Marketing Resource Center?
A. a new HP service for HP partners who provide printed marketing material on demand
B. anew HP print center for end users who provide customer-designed marketing material
C. anewly created team of marketing experts that provide in-house training for HP partners
D. anHP resource for document templates, free training classes, and success stories
Answer: D

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NO.2 When would a company typically use outsourced printing.?
A. when they have several small print jobs
B. when medium or high volumes of static documents are required
C. when confidential document printing is required
D. when short turnaround time is required
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the advantage of a multifunction printer? A. It can be networked to more end users than a
networked single function printer.
B. It uses fewer supplies than a single function printer.
C. It takes up less floor space than individual devices for faxing, scanning, printing and copying.
D. Once it has reached its monthly print volume it automatically turns off so there are no excess
copy charges to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which imaging and printing trend is an industry trend?
A. seeking information on the Internet
B. convergence of multiple functions into one device
C. using templates to create a business brand
D. paperless offices
Answer: B

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NO.5 What should a business do before deciding to print in-house?
A. determine if they can get a bulk discount on glossy paper
B. use the HP Print Cost Calculator to determine if it is cost effective to print a job in-house
C. hire a local print shop employee on a contract basis to help develop in-house material
D. find a contractor to create the design
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y39
Exam Name: HP (Managing & Troubleshooting Enterprise Wireless Networks)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the risk of applying intrusion prevention to an access point (AP) listed as Indeterminate?
A. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP follows your Authorized WLAN policy. You might
quarantine your own AP, which could frustrate users.
B. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because you authorized it manually, but it does not
follow your Authorized WLAN policy.
Quarantining your own AP could frustrate users.
C. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because its signal is so low. Sensors will make
themselves busy in quarantining an AP that is probably too far away to be a risk.
D. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your system. You might quarantine
another company's AP, which is illegal.
Answer: D

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NO.2 By default, which roles do the RF Manager and its sensors perform in detecting Rogue access points
(APs)?
A. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your network.
B. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find unauthorized APs on your network.
C. Sensors monitor wired and wireless transmissions so RF Manager can find unauthorized APs
connected to your wired network.
D. Sensors detect APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your Authorized AP list.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Students are experiencing slow
network performance, and some clients are having difficulty connecting to the wireless network. The IT
staff installed wireless access points (APs) over a year ago. Previous classes, consisting of 200 students
had no problems. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize performance for all students?
A. Enable radio 1 on all APs.
B. Add service-template1 to all 2.4Ghz radios.
C. Remove service-template1 from all 5Ghz radios.
D. Set cipher-suite to ccmp for service-template1.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Students running 802.11n clients are not seeing
optimal bandwidth connection data rates. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize 802.11n
data rates?
A. Disable High Throughput (HT mode) on all radios.
B. Disable RTS/CTS capability on non-802.11n client NICs.
C. Configure Band Steering mode on radio 1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
D. Configure Greenfield mode on radio1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
Answer: D

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NO.5 In sensor only (SO) mode, what does an HP sensor monitor?
A. It monitors only one untagged VLAN as well as wireless signals.
B. It monitors wireless signals, but does not monitor VLANs.
C. It monitors multiple VLANs as well as wireless signals.
D. It monitors multiple VLANs, but does not monitor wireless signals.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. All clients show maximum signal strength, but
some students are experiencing frequent interruptions of video playback. Based on the exhibits, what is a
solution to optimize network throughput for all students.?
A. setting maximum power on radio 1 on all APs
B. setting mandatory data rates for 802.11a to 12
C. changing the channel on radio 2 of AP5 to channel 6
D. lowering the RTS threshold on all radios
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are the requirements for deploying a sensor that is discovered by RF Manager with zero
configuration? (Select two.)
A. The sensor must operate in network detector (ND) mode.
B. The sensor must be installed on the same VLAN as RF Manager.
C. The network must be set up to assign the sensor IP settings through DHCP.
D. The DNS server must map the WiFi-security-server to the RF Manager IP address.
E. RF Manager and the sensor must both be at their default IP settings.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 RF Manager has determined that a Rogue access point (AP) must be quarantined. The only sensor
within range is listed as busy. What happens?
A. RF Manager reclassifies the new Rogue AP as banned so that it cannot connect on the wired side.
B. RF Manager specifies that a quarantine is pending for the new Rogue AP until the sensor is no longer
busy.
C. The sensor stops quarantining one of the currently quarantined devices and starts quarantining the
new Rogue AP.
D. The sensor splits its time between blocking the currently quarantined devices and the new Rogue AP.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN
policy?
A. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect the locations of harmful devices, instead of
drawing on the findings of network detectors. This might make the prediction less accurate.
B. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
C. RF Manager might classify your own access points (APs) as Rogue APs because their transmit power
is too high and take action against them.
D. RF Manager might classify legitimate access points (APs) owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs
and take action against them.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is experiencing network performance issues with their wireless network. The customer
decides to take corrective actions on their wireless active controller. Based on the exhibit, what will
happen on the wireless network if the customer sent a 1200 byte packet from a wireless client associated
to essid HP_Openaccess? (Select two.)
A. The wireless packet will be fragmented.
B. The wireless packet will trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
C. The wireless packet will not be fragmented.
D. The wireless packet will not trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
E. The access point will send more Beacon frames than if the default configuration had been left
unchanged.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 A customer reports the performance of their HP A-WA2620E access point (AP) is inadequate. While
investigating the report, you determine that the AP is functioning in MIMO 3x2 mode instead of MIMO 3x3
as desired. What is one possible cause of this problem?
A. The AP is powered using 802.3af PoE.
B. The AP is configured to use a 40Mhz channel bandwidth.
C. The AP is not implementing the local switching feature.
D. The AP is powered using 802.3at PoE.
Answer: A

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NO.12 You set your country of operation and then apply the default Sensor Configuration Template settings to
all sensors in RF Manager. How do your sensors handle channels that cannot be used legally in your
country?
A. The sensors scan these channels and detect threats, but they do not take action against the threats.
B. The sensors scan these channels, detect threats, and take the action you have specified against any
detected threats.
C. The sensors scan these channels and prevent any authorized access points or clients from operating
on these channels.
D. The sensors do not scan these channels for threats.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Some students are experiencing frequent
interruptions to video playback while others have no issues. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to
optimize performance for all students?
A. Set all radios to maximum power.
B. Set all APs to the same channel.
C. Enable load balancing of clients across APs.
D. Increase the beacon interval.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which action does RF Manager take to quarantine a client?
A. It instructs the client's access point to place the client's traffic in a quarantine VLAN.
B. It instructs a sensor to send a forced disassociation message to the client's access point (AP) so that
the AP forces the client to disconnect.
C. It instructs a sensor to send frames to interfere with the frames sent by the quarantined client.
D. It adds the client's MAC address to the access point's MAC lockout list, thereby blocking the client's
traffic.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
RF Manager and its sensors have detected an association between an Uncategorized Client and an
access point (AP) that uses these settings:
SSID = Company C
Security = WPA2 with CCMP and 802.1X
The AP is detected while passing the client traffic on VLAN 20 (10.1.20.0/24). WiFi is permitted at this
location. The exhibits show the Authorized SSID Template, other Authorized WLAN Policy settings, and
the Intrusion Prevention Policy for the location.
What does RF Manager have its sensors do?
A. quarantine the AP only
B. quarantine the client only
C. take no action against either device
D. quarantine both the AP and the client
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y30
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.2 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.7 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.13 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.18 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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NO.19 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E33
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 According to IDC estimates, discrete purchasing activities in the area of networking, storage andservers
will start combining into a new Converged Infrastructure category. What is the estimatedvalue that this
new category will reach by 2012?
A. $20 billion USD
B. $25 billion USD
C. $30 billion USD
D. $35 billion USD
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which problem do companies experience most often as a result of having virtualized systems?
A. workload distribution control
B. decreased hardware performance
C. bottlenecks on virtual machines
D. virtual sprawl
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 By up to which percentage can HP BladeSystem Matrix reduce the total cost of ownership?
A. 26%
B. 36%
C. 56%
D. 76%
Answer: D

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NO.4 How does the focus of sales discussions changes as you become a consultative salesperson?
A. The price of products and services becomes more important.
B. Product features become more important.
C. You sell fewer products and more services.
D. You focus on delivering quantifiable business value.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the best way to establish yourself as a trusted advisor to your customers.?
A. Deliver products and services that meet customer expectations.
B. Demonstrate working proofs of concepts for each solution.
C. Help the customer devise metrics to measure their performance.
D. Speak strategically to their business challenges.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-P15
Exam Name: HP (Planning & Designing HP Superdome 2 Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How many Onboard Administrator (OA) modules and Global Partition Services Modules (GPSMs) ship
standard in a single Superdome 2 enclosure?
A. two OA modules and four GPSMs
B. two OA modules and two GPSMs
C. four OA modules and two GPSMs
D. four OA modules and four GPSMs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which HP Converged Infrastructure core component does the statement in the exhibit describe?
A. Virtual Resource Pools
B. FlexFabric
C. Infrastructure Operating Environment
D. Data Center Smart Grid
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the characteristics of the HP Infrastructure Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A. enables dynamic tuning of resources
B. virtualizes network systems and protocols
C. regulates power in the data center
D. optimizes the data center cooling environment
E. speeds time to application value
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 What is the correct definition of the HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. It packages IT components into one virtual shared resource that can be shared across the enterprise.
B. It matches the supply of IT resources with the demand for business applications and delivers a
services-oriented infrastructure.
C. It enables purpose-centric solutions, such as those built for scale, holistic energy management,and
adaptive software, that deliver performance, efficiency, and value.
D. It evolves the IT infrastructure from a product-centric approach to a technology-based
approach.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is included in a BladeSystem Matrix product number (SKU)? (Select two.)
A. Converged Infrastructure assessment service
B. installation and setup services
C. HP Flex Financing
D. integrated IT infrastructure platform
E. proof of concept
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-A21
Exam Name: HP (NonStop Kernel Basics)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which Tandem Failure Data System (TFDS) command do you enter to prevent dumping a particular
processor?
A. RELOAD OFF <n>
B. DISABLECPUS <n>
C. DISABLECPUS ON
D. AUTORELOAD OFF
Answer: B

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NO.2 When SAVEABEND files are created, where are they stored.?
A. in $SYSTEM.SYSnn
B. in $SYSTEM.SYSTEM
C. in the object file subvolume
D. in the user's default subvolume
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the primary functions of EMS?
A. to collect and print events
B. to distribute and print events
C. to distribute and show events
D. to collect and distribute events
Answer: D

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NO.4 It was reported that a network outage occurred between 01:00 and 02:00 this morning. Which command
would display the general system event messages for that period?
A. EMSDIST TYPE P, COLLECT $0, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], TIME 01:00, STOP 02:00
B. EMSDIST TYPE P, COLLECT $0, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], START 01:00, STOP 02:00
C. EMSDIST TYPE P, LOGFILE $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE.ZZSV0100, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], TIME 01:00,
STOP 02:00
D. EMSDIST TYPE P, LOGFILE $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE.ZZSV0100, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], START
01:00, STOP 02:00
Answer: A

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NO.5 What additional information should accompany a processor dump for a service provider to conduct a
proper analysis?
A. CONFAUX, CONFLIST, CONFTEXT, and CUSTFILE
B. CONFLIST, CONFTEXT, USERID, and ZLOGnn subvolume
C. CONFLIST, TSYSCLR, ZLOGnn subvolume, and ZSERVICE subvolume
D. CONFAUX, USERID, ZSERVICE subvolume, and ZSYSCONF.CONFIG
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which subvolume, by default, contains the current EMS log file?
A. $SYSTEM.ZEMS
B. $SYSTEM.ZLOGnn
C. $SYSTEM.SYSTEM
D. $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which subvolume is the TFDS configuration file (TFDSCONF) located?
A. $oss.ztfds
B. $system.ztfds
C. $dsmscm.ztfds
D. $system.system
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which command is used to determine the Software Product Revision (SPR) of PATHMON?
A. VPROC $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON
B. STATUS $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON
C. VIEWCONF $SYSTEM.ZSYSCONF.CONFIG
D. FUP COPY $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON,,A,COUNT 3
Answer: A

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NO.9 To view processor status and reload states, which command is used in TFDSCOM?
A. INFO
B. STATUS
C. REPORT
D. HISTORY
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which TACL built-in identifies the path used to execute an object or macro file?
A. #FINDLIST
B. #SHOWLIST
C. #SEARCHLIST
D. #PMSEARCHLIST
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B70
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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NO.2 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.5 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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