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Exam Code: 000-225
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX & Linux Technical Sales Skills - v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.2 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.6 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
Linux on Power a better solution than Linux on x86?
A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.7 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-155
Exam Name: IBM (System x Server Family Sales V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A prospective PureFlex customer is also considering Cisco UCS. Which of the following would
be most appropriate to assist a seller in defining Flex advantages compared to a specific Cisco UCS
solution?
A. ATS
B. IGF
C. Bidwinroom
D. Competeline
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following actions is most important for a successful VDI deployment?
A. Customer demonstration
B. Assessment and planning
C. Benchmark the total solution
D. Using the newest client devices
Answer: B

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NO.3 A client is designing a new high density data center for their growing IT infrastructure. The
customer asks the System x sales professional for advice on this project. Which of the following is
the primary constraint to high density data center buildouts?
A. Power and cooling
B. Rack space and power
C. Cabling and bandwidth
D. Bandwidth and rack space
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is looking for the most servers that can be placed into one rack for the customer
HPC.
Power consumption and heat output areA customer is looking for the most servers that can be
placed into one rack for the customer? HPC. Power consumption and heat output are secondary
considerations. Which of the following is the best solution to propose to this customer?
A. x3850 X5
B. iDataPlex
C. BladeCenter
D. PureFlex with x220 compute nodes
Answer: B

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NO.5 An eX5 client is concerned about the cost-per-GB of the proposed SAS disk-based solution, and
suggests using SATA disk technology in order to reduce costs for their 24x7 mission-critical Microsoft
SQL Server application. Which of the following must be discussed with this customer?
A. SATA drives require more floor space compared with SAS
B. SAS drives are faster but SATA drives are much more reliable
C. SATA storage is slower and designed for a lower duty cycle compared with SAS
D. SAS drives support automatic rebuild upon failure, SATA must be rebuilt manually
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is looking for a computer solution for their remote branch offices. They have a
small computer room in each branch office. There are six virtualized workloads that each need two
cores of processing power and 8GB of memory. They need to be able to failover workloads within
the branch office. Space, remote management and future expansion are the primary drivers of this
solution. Which of the following System x or PureFlex solutions would be the least expensive choice
for this customer?
A. PureSystems with external disk
B. A tower server with internal disk
C. PureSystems with integrated V7000
D. Rack optimized with shared external disk
Answer: D

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NO.7 Solution design has shown that a PureFlex prospect requires more storage capacity than what
is included with a base PureFlex System Standard offering. Which of the following would address the
additional storage requirement?
A. Switch the solution to a PureFlex System Enterprise configuration
B. Add features to the configuration to include more storage capacity
C. Engage IBM Techline to perform a capacity assessment of the current storage environment
D. Open an RPQ or SPORE request so the base offering can be modified to include additional storage
capacity
Answer: B

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NO.8 A retail company plans to consolidate 75 existing dual processor Xeon servers, all running a
web server application on Windows Server 2008. They are planning to consolidate on a single x3850
X5 running vSphere. Which of the following should be discussed with this customer?
A. SCSI or Fibre Channel storage solution
B. Two servers for redundancy and failover
C. Web content static or dynamic information
D. Processor utilization of the existing web servers
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer is looking for a computer solution for their small office environment.
The customer has no special facilites or local technical support.
The solution must be quiet and fit on a table in the copier room.
The application needs no more than one core and 4GB of memory.
They have a storage requirement for eight disk drives.
Which category of System x server would be the best choice for this customer?
A. Tower
B. PureSystems
C. BladeCenter H
D. Rack optimized
Answer: A

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NO.10 A client traditionally purchased Blades and BladeCenter H chassis from IBM.
They are currently looking to refresh their datacenter and swap out their chassis and servers.
The sales professional recommends they go with a Flex System Chassis. Which one of the following
statements is a benefit of a Flex System Chassis over a BladeCenter H Chassis?
A. The Flex Chassis has more server bays
B. The Flex Chassis takes up less rack space
C. There is a management appliance you can use with the Flex Chassis
D. Flex Chassis has fewer power supplies and is more energy efficient
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-670
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf

NO.3 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/support/assistonsite/

NO.4 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.6 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

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Exam Code: 00M-653
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Emptoris Strategic Supply Management Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

00M-653 (IBM Emptoris Strategic Supply Management Sales Mastery Test v1) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/00M-653.html

NO.1 There are many benefits derived from Emptoris Sourcing.
Which is not one?
A. Enforce compliance to standard process
B. Actively monitor supplier risk
C. Increase Adoption with RFx Wizards and Templates
D. Analyze "Non-Price" Factors to award suppliers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/industries/publicsector/fileserve?contentid=243307

NO.2 Which of the following does not qualify as a prospect?
A. Annual budget for software is $50k
B. Number of mobile devices is greater than 1,000
C. Customer is currently considering Ariba, Bravo, CombineNet, lasta
D. Annual spend with the suppliers is greater than $400m
Answer: D

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NO.3 Who is not a main stream competitor?
A. SAP
B. Upside
C. Ariba
D. Hiperos
Answer: D

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Reference:http://blogs.forrester.com/andrew_bartels/11-12-15ibms_acquisition_of_emptoris_mov
es_it_squarely_into_the_epurchasing_software_market _watch_out_for_f

NO.4 From the selection list below, which option best describes why a customer would purchase the
Spend Analysis solution?
A. Manage "at risk" suppliers
B. Move contracts through faster to win more deals
C. To bring more spend under management
D. Guarantee more "on-time" delivery from suppliers
Answer: C

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Reference:https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=7&cad=rja
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NO.5 Below are example of Emptoris business drivers in the healthcare industry. Which one does
not apply?
A. A New CPO has been chartered by the CEO/COO to drive down operating costs
B. Successful usage of contract management for managing provider contracts
C. Pressure to reduce operating and medical costs while maintaining standards of care
D. Face-to-face channels where the customer interacts directly with agents who are able to
communicate with the portal electronically
Answer: C

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NO.6 In cases where a prospect has multiple instances of ERP systems, Emptoris' Spend Analysis
value proposition most accurately reflects:
A. Ability to pull these sources together, cleansing the data and providing a single common view of a
process.
B. Provide a document management approach as opposed to a continuous synchronization of the
document with the data base
C. A proven track record of capturing savings in categories such as ingredients, raw materials,
assemblies, transportation, IT, facilities.
D. Segment the supplier base across multiple categories, geographies, and business units to manage
performance and evaluate capabilities at a local or global dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer would NOT use Contract Management to become best in class via:
A. Obligation control
B. Contract Authoring
C. Gaining Contract Visibility
D. Running eAuctions
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-622
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Risk Analytics for Insurance and Pensions Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 24 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which one of the following is the key legislative driver for insurance companies and pension
funds to improve their risk management processes?
A. Basle II
B. Basle III
C. Solvency II
D. Dodd Frank
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Dodd-Frank:made changes in the American financial regulatory environment
that affect all federal financial regulatory agencies and almost every part of the nation's financial
services industry.
Incorrect:
Not A:Basel II, initially published in June 2004, was intended to create an international
standard for banking regulators to control how much capital banks need to put aside to
guard against the types of financial and operational risks banks (and the whole economy) face.
Not B:Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory standard on
bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk.
Not C: The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation.

NO.2 What is the product at the core of the IBM Algorithmics Economic Capital and Solvency II:
Compliance and Reporting Edition?
A. Netteza
B. IBM Algorithmics Actuarial & Financial Modeler
C. Collateral Management
D. Open Pages for Insurance Risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Compliance and Reporting Edition *Offers a pre-configured, robust and rapid implementation
solution for Solvency II that focuses on a Standard Formula approach. Provides you with the
capabilities of Algo Financial Modeler, a powerful actuarial and financial modeling engine, combined
with a workflow, governance and reporting tool to deliver an end-to-end solution for Solvency II
*Algo Financial Modeler can either calculate liability cashflows or act as an aggregation layer to
consolidate cashflows generated by existing actuarial systems. *Offers the flexibility to scale up to
the more advanced feature set of the Enterprise Edition to meet the challenges of changing
business requirements and growth.

NO.3 Which type of global insurance company must comply with the regulations introduced by
Solvency II?
A. European-based Life insurer with GPW of less than 5M Euros
B. A Tokyo-based multi-line insurer with an open market value of more than 100M Euros
C. A London-based multi-line insurer with GPW of 10M Euros
D. A North American based Property & Casualty Insurer with GPW of S10M
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.4 Which is the appropriate qualifying question for a prospect for the IBM Algorithmics Actuarial
& Financial Modeler?
A. Are you struggling to adapt your current actuarial models to address new business requirements?
B. Are you building an internal model for Economic Capital or Solvency II?
C. What are your plans for consolidating input data from various systems'?
D. What methodology do you use to aggregate market and non-market risk?
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Algorithmics Actuarial and Financial Modeling provides a range of business benefits, including:
*Advanced actuarial modeling to undertake the full spectrum of global actuarial
calculations, and address the challenges of 'real-world', principles-based modeling.
Supports regulatory compliance including Solvency II and other regimes.
*Scalable modeling and production infrastructure enables full transparency, audit, workflow
and control over the modeling process.
*Critical decision support enables more effective, risk-informed business strategies.
*Helps reduce actuarial costs and optimize ease of use with swift implementation and processing
speeds.
Note:
*Supports regulatory compliance
Enhances confidence with a secure modeling and production environment that supports
compliance across a range of risk-based regulatory and other supervisory regimes,
including Solvency II and IFRS.

NO.5 Which of these C-level executives would be a key influencer for the selection of a Solvency II
Compliance Solution?
A. Senior Vice President of Global Sales
B. Chief Marketing Officer
C. Vice President of European Sales
D. Chief Investment Officer
Answer: C

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Explanation:
*Solvency II is an EU legislative programme to be implemented in all 27 Member States, including
the UK. It introduces a new, harmonised EU-wide insurance regulatory regime. The legislation
replaces 13 existing EU insurance directives.
*The Solvency II Directive 2009/138 /EC is an EU Directive that codifies and harmonises the EU
insurance regulation. Primarily this concerns the amount of capital that EU insurance companies
must hold to reduce the risk of insolvency.

NO.6 Which risk management technique is currently the main motivation for pension funds
toacquirenew risk management systems?
A. Operational Risk
B. Liability hedging strategy
C. Corporate counter party risk
D. Sovereign debt risk
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Pension funds currently face a multitude of challenges and risks. We believe liability hedging (also
known as liability matching) is an effective way to help de-risk a fund.

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Exam Code: HP0-P16
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Design of HP 9000/HP Integrity Server Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is an advantage of Itanium-based processors over PA-RISC-based processors?
A.They provide higher reliability and availability.
B.They provide mission-critical application support.
C.They support different operating systems and applications.
D.They provide more than 4GB available memory per application.
Correct:C

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NO.2 When using the HP Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT) to find a corresponding server
for a competitive offer, which numeric fields do you compare?
A.TPC-B
B.number of CPUs
C.delta performance
D.estimated performance
Correct:D

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NO.3 When talking to your client about migrating to HP Integrity rx8640 servers, what benefits should
you discuss? (Select two.)
A.HP Integrity partitions can be physical and virtual.
B.Integrity servers use 64-bit processor technology.
C.PA-RISC and Itanium cell boards can be mixed in the same complex.
D.The HP Integrity rx8640 server supports up to eight cell boards in the server.
E.Cell boards with different processor speeds can be mixed in the same partition.
Correct:A B

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NO.4 By what factor is the I/O bandwidth of the zx2 chipset increased compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.1.0
B.1.2
C.2.0
D.2.5
Correct:C

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NO.5 What are advantages of HP partitioning over IBM LPAR partitioning? (Select two.)
A.HP offers two kinds partitions: nPar and vPar.
B.HP vPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
C.HP nPar partitions offer full electrical isolation.
D.HP partitions offer the same functionality as IBM LPARS.
E.HP nPars enable dynamic processor reallocation to another nPar.
Correct:A C

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NO.6 What is the primary advantage of using roadmaps when discussing HP solutions with your
customers? (Select two.)
A.Roadmaps show information about product reliability.
B.Roadmaps provide information about technical product specifications.
C.Roadmaps show the customer which direction HP is going.
D.Roadmaps create a shared understanding of the future of the business.
Correct:C D

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NO.7 Your task is to prepare a document that focuses on the competitive positioning of HP Integrity
servers against other vendors for Linux. Which competitive concept should be included in your
document?
A.HP delivers proprietary technology and complete solutions for Linux.
B.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and limited solutions for Linux.
C.HP delivers industry-standard platforms and complete solutions for Linux.
D.HP delivers proprietary technology that results in lower total cost of ownership (TCO).
Correct:C

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NO.8 What are the components of a cell board in an Integrity mid-range server?
A.up to four hard drives
B.up to 64 memory DIMMs
C.up to two PCI I/O card cages
D.up to four multi-core processor chips
Correct:D

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NO.9 Considering the advantages of using HP Integrity servers for online transaction processing
(OLTP) environments, what type of business would benefit the most from using this hardware
platform?
A.a data warehouse
B.a bank with automatic teller machines
C.an architectural firm with a large database of digital drawings
D.a library that maintains a catalog of historic records for online viewing
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which feature allows an HP Integrity platform with HP Virtual Server Environment (VSE) to
remain operational if a processor chip fails?
A.iCAP
B.OLAR
C.hot plug processors
D.dynamic processor deallocation
Correct:D

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NO.11 Your customer performs a network-based backup of HP-UX servers over a Gigabit Ethernet LAN
to save their data to a library. Which technology will improve performance?
A.NIC bonding
B.NIC teaming
C.Auto Port Aggregation (APA)
D.Advanced Technology Attachment
Correct:C

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NO.12 HP offers Advanced Memory Protection in the zx2 and sx2000 based servers. Which option
enables this benefit?
A.Double-chip sparing
B.DDR2 memory
C.Scalable Memory Extenders
D.Memory scrubbers
Correct:A

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NO.13 Which advantages of HP Integrity servers can you propose to a potential customer running IBM
POWER4 servers? (Select two.)
A.IBM supports only Linux operating systems.
B.HP is the only vendor that provides partitioning technology.
C.HP Integrity servers can mix processor types on a cell board.
D.A hardware swap is required to migrate from IBM POWER4 to POWER5.
E.HP Integrity offers a better price-to-performance ratio based on SAP SD benchmark data.
Correct:D E

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NO.14 What differentiates the HP Integrity platform from the IBM pSeries?
A.HP Integrity does not run Linux.
B.IBM pSeries does not run Linux.
C.HP Integrity does not run Windows.
D.IBM pSeries does not run Windows.
Correct:D

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NO.15 A customer is hesitant to invest in HP Integrity servers because an IBM representative told him
that the Itanium 2 processor will go out of production due to low independent software vendor
(ISV) support. Which responses are correct for this concern? (Select two.)
A.More than 7000 ISVs are developing software for the Itanium 2 processor and the number is growing.
B.HP Integrity Virtual Machine will enable the customer to run any x86 application without performance
loss.
C.The roadmap for HP Integrity servers indicates that future processor developments will be included in
the customer's business plans.
D.Even though there are only 7000 ISVs developing software to run on Itanium 2 processors, they cover
every needed type of application.
Correct:A C

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NO.16 Which new features are available on the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset? (Select
two.)
A.SDRAM
B.chip spare
C.double chip spare
D.up to 512GB main memory
E.up to 768GB main memory
Correct:C E

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NO.17 What differentiates HP Integrity servers from other vendors' Itanium-based systems?
A.chipsets
B.full redundancy
C.faster clock speeds
D.memory expandability
Correct:A

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NO.18 What new feature is enabled by the zx2 chipset, as compared to the zx1 chipset?
A.PCI-X 1.0
B.SDRAM
C.chip spare
D.PCI Express
Correct:D

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NO.19 Your customer wants to upgrade their IT environment. What must you do when gathering
information about the customer's existing infrastructure?
A.Identify existing contracts and validate them with the contract administration group.
B.Identify the existing management and administration model and validate the customer's market position.
C.Identify the existing server and storage environment for hardware revision levels and update to the
latest version.
D.Identify the existing server, storage, application, management, administration, contracts, system, and
site diagrams.
Correct:D

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NO.20 How many logical processors are provided in an HP Integrity rx6600 server that has four
dual-core Itanium 2 processors with HyperThreading enabled?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-S11
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
From the screen shown, click the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
The ACU shows the Smart Array controller, but not the MSA1000 attached to the Linux server. The Linux
server can access and use the LUNs on the MSA1000.
What should you do to allow the ACU to configure the MSA1000?
A.Install the hpacucli package.
B.Install the cpqacuxe package.
C.Install the ProLiant Support Pack.
D.Install the ProLiant Integration Module
ANSWER:
C

NO.2 Which types of migration can be performed by HP Virtualization Management Software? (Select
three.)
A.Virtual to Virtual migration
B.Virtual to Physical migration
C.Physical to Virtual migration
D.ProLiant to Integrity migration
E.Physical to ProLiant migration
WArialZX
ANSWER: ABC

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NO.3 Which software should be used to configure the write cache setting in the MSA1500cs?
A.Array Diagnostic Utility
B.Array Configuration Utility
C.Resource Partition Manager
D.Network Configuration Utility
WArialZX
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 Which component license involves a communications protocol that provides direct transmission of
data from the memory of one computer to the memory of another with minimal demands on the host CPU?
A.Accelerated iSCSI Pack
B.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C.InfiniBand Teaming Networking Pack
D.RDMA Pack for Multifunction Gigabit Server Adapter
WArialZX
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 In a Fibre Channel fabric network, which network service is responsible for registering and
maintaining a valid logical network address database that is used for LUN masking and zoning?
A.Time Services
B.CHAP Services
C.Name Server Services
D.Secured Fabric Services
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 Which parameters have an effect on the amount of time required to perform an online capacity
expansion? (Select two.)
A.logical drive size
B.amount of other I/O work the server is processing
C.amount of physical memory installed in the system
D.priority level of the rebuild operation set in the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
WArialZX
ANSWER: AB

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NO.7 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.Oracle RAC
B.HP Integrity NonStop
C.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
D.HP Serviceguard services on Linux Server
ANSWER: B

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NO.8 Which address syntax is valid for iSCSI addressing?
A.iqn.0202.hpstorage.hp.com
B.fqdn.2007.03.iSCSI.hp.com
C.iqn.2006.02.com.hp:hpstorage
D.ieee.iSCSI.ifqdn.2006.03.com.hp:hpstorage
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which systems are currently not monitored or licensed for performance monitoring using HP Systems
Insight Manager? (Select two.)
A.server sgh70413xa
B.server sgh70413xb
C.server sgh70413wy
D.server home-ews3047277
ANSWER: BD

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NO.10 Which processor currently uses 64-bit x86 based architecture and HyperTransport technology?
A.AMD Athlon
B.Intel Itanium2
C.AMD Opteron
D.Intel Pentium IV
ANSWER: C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer requires your assistance in designing the database server shown in the attached exhibit. The
database will have a large volume of writes to the log files and heavy read/write use of the data files.
Which RAID configuration would provide the best performance?
A.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 5
B.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
C.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 5
D.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
E.log files: RAID 6 (ADG)
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 Which technology in Ethernet switches ensures loop-free connectivity?
A.Spanning Tree Protocol
B.Spanning Topology Recovery
C.Uplink Trunk Blocking Protocol
D.Layer 2 Loop Broadcast Recovery
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 After initial HP Systems Insight Manager v5.x discovery and type identification, a comprehensive data
collection is attempted on all newly discovered devices. It will the store the details in the database on the
Centralized Management Server (CMS).
Which protocols are used in this comprehensive data collection? (Select three.)
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Distributed Management Interface (DMI)
C.Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D.Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
ANSWER: BDE

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NO.14 You need to install an MSA50 enclosure in an HP rack but the enclosure unit is not available at the
planned installation time. Therefore, you need to allocate the required space in the rack and plan the
installation once the enclosure is available.
What is the EIA unit height of the MSA50 enclosure?
A.1U
B.2U
C.3U
D.4U
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 Which HP servers use HyperTransport architecture? (Select two.)
A.BL480c
B.ML150
C.DL365
D.ML570
E.DL320
F.DL585
WArialZX
ANSWER: CF

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NO.16 Which HP server uses HyperTransport architecture?
A.BL20p
B.DL140
C.DL385
D.ML370
E.rx2620
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ANSWER: C

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NO.17 A data center administrator wants to measure the BTU/hr generated by all the current ProLiant 380
G5 servers. The administrator wants to use this information to accommodate more servers without
making changes to the data center cooling system.
Which HP Essential product should the administrator use to accomplish this?
A.HP Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP Insight Control Environment for ProLiant ML/DL
E.HP Insight Control Environment for HP BladeSystem
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 You have a few ProLiant servers running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 that have the Emergency
Management Services (EMS) enabled.
Using the Special Administration Console (SAC), which command limits the memory usage of a process?
A.k
B.r
C.m
D.lock
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ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Which ProLiant Essentials product erases the entire system during its installation process?
A.HP Insight Control Environment
B.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
C.HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
D.HP Insight Control Data Center Edition
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 Which ProLiant Essentials product uses Virus Throttle to prevent the spread of viruses and worms?
A.Intelligent Networking Pack
B.Insight Control Linux Edition
C.iLO Advanced Feature Pack
D.Performance Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.21 What is required to enable online spare memory on a ProLiant DL-series server?
A.All processor sockets must be populated and the spare VRM must be installed.
B.All memory banks available in the server must be populated with DIMMs of the same size.
C.The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other banks.
D.ProLiant Essentials must be installed on the system where online spare memory will be enabled.
ANSWER: C

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NO.22 Which advantage do AMD Opteron processors offer over Intel Pentium Xeon processors used in HP
ProLiant servers?
A.AMD Opteron processors use Burst Mode Memory technology.
B.AMD Opteron-based memory is connected to each processor via a South Bridge chip.
C.AMD Opteron-based system memory modules are controlled and managed by the processor they are
attached to.
D.AMD Opteron processors use the MemBus architecture that interconnects all installed processors and
memory modules.
ANSWER: C

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NO.23 Which HP Systems Insight Manager task enables the administrator to gather information from a newly
discovered network device?
A.polling
B.discovery
C.identification
D.data collection
ANSWER: D

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NO.24 Which type of task allows you to update software and firmware of several ProLiant Servers using HP
Systems Insight Manager?
A.Control
B.Polling
C.Distribution
D.Management
ANSWER: A

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NO.25 Your customer has an MSA30 set up in a single-bus configuration and wants to change it to a dual-bus
configuration.
How do you accomplish this?
A.It is not possible to configure the MSA30 in a dual-bus configuration.
B.You replace the single-port SCSI I/O module with a dual-port SCSI I/O module.
C.You set the Bus Configuration switch to dual-bus mode on the back of the MSA30 unit.
D.You reconfigure the properties of the MSA30 controller using Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
ANSWER: B

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NO.26 You are performing capacity planning for an active/active cluster.
Which factors are most important for you to consider? (Select two.)
A.bandwidth of the cluster interconnect
B.cluster node processor requirements
C.memory requirements of each cluster node
D.maximum number of concurrent user connections
E.bandwidth between the cluster nodes and the shared storage
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ANSWER: BC

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NO.27 Which ProLiant Essentials product monitors and graphs the air temperature as it enters a server?
A.HP Onboard Administrator
B.HP Insight Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP iLO Power Management Pack
ANSWER: B

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NO.28 By default with any addition pack installed, which file formats are available for reports generated from
HP Systems Insight Manager? (Select three.)
A..txt
B..pdf
C..xml
D..prn
E..csv
F..html
WArialZX
ANSWER: CEF

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NO.29 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.HP Integrity NonStop
B.HP Serviceguard for Linux
C.Novell Netware Cluster Services
D.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
ANSWER: A

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NO.30 A customer wants to order 20 ProLiant DL380 G5 Servers to be shipped to a field location with no IT
support. The servers should be already racked, cabled, and have an operating system loaded when they
are delivered to the field location.
Which HP service is best suited for this situation?
A.HP Factory Express
B.HP Consulting Services
C.HP Care Pack Installation Service
D.HP Care Pack Next Business Day hardware support
ANSWER: A

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Exam Code: HP0-628
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HSx80 Compaq Storage Solutions for UNIX)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How many device-side single-ended SCSI buses does the HSG80 controller support?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. None, all buses are differential.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the green LED in the shape of a canister on a universal drive indicate?
A. drive is idle
B. drive activity
C. drive has failed
D. drive is operational
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many 1.0 inch disk drives are supported in the StorageWorks Model 4350
device enclosure?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 14
D. 50
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of fan modules supported in the M2200 shelf?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 Under normal operating conditions, the reset button on the Operator Control Panel
(OCP) of an HSG80 controller_______ .
A. remains off
B. remains on
C. turns amber
D. blinks once per second
Answer: D

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NO.6 Exhibit:
What number matches the cache module used by the top HSG80 controller?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of StorageWorks Model 4354 device enclosures
supported by the HSG80?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the maximum number of supported cache modules in an MA8000 storage
subsystem?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where is the first place that data are stored after arriving in the HSG80 controller?
A. disk
B. cache
C. NVRAM
D. static memory
Answer: B

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NO.10 Exhibit:
If the first four LEDs in the exhibit are on solid, what is the condition of the
controller?
A. Controller is running.
B. Controller has a fault.
C. Controller is shut down.
D. Ports 1, 2, 3 have misconfigured drives.
Answer: C

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