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Exam Code: 3X0-202
Exam Name: SAIR (Apache Webserver (Level 2))

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NO.1 An administrator needs to set the permissions an Apache Web server to maximize security, while still
allowing for full functionality. Which of the following permissions are most appropriate for Apache
configuration files and Apache executables, respectively?
A. 755, 000
B. 755, 111
C. 511, 755
D. 777, 555
E. 755, 511
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following represents a security concern of programming CGI scripts using the C
programming language?
A. C programs must be run with setuid root.
B. If the program receives more data than the amount of memory it has allocated, a buffer overflow can
cause
the program to exit to a shell on the server.
C. Many early C compile lack the ability to dynamically alter file permissions, which results in many C
program running with root permissions.
D. CGI script written in C compile at runtime on the client system, which makes the client vulnerable.
E. If the server and client do not have identical compiler versions, the lesser compiler is used, which may
have
known exploits.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Ralf, a user, wishes to upgrade his existing version of Apache by including mod_ssl as a loadable
module.
Assuming that the shared object for mod_ssl is libssl. So, that mod_ssl is located in "/prefix/modules/,"
which of the following must be present in his httpd, conf file?
A. LoadModule mod_ssl modules/libssl.so
B. Addmodule mod_ssl modules/libssl.so
C. LoadModule /prefix/modules/libssl.so mod_ssl
D. AddModule /prefix/modules/libssl.so mod_ssl
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a requirement for IP-based virtual hosting?
A. Separate network devices, each with its own I address.
B. Separate IP addresses for each virtual host
C. Separate configuration files for each virtual host.
D. Separate IPAlias directives in the httpd.conf file for each virtual host.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following best explains the function of the KeepAlive directive in Apache 1.1?
A. It defines the length of time Apache will wait before spawning additional processes.
B. It constantly checks on the Apache service and reports via syslogd if there is a server problem.
C. It makes a backup by spawning clones of itself in case the server goes down.
D. It defined how long a server process can keep a connection before shutting down.
E. It tells Apache how long to wait before going into the zombie process state.
Answer: D

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NO.6 One security exploit with Apache is to include a command in a script that lets the scripts execute a
command found in one of its variables. For example, a script might contain the who command and
display a list users logged into the server. Which of the following, if included in a CGI script, will run a
command with the appropriate permissions?
A. declare
B. fork
C. export
D. eval
E. eacho
Answer: D

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NO.7 How does Apache enable CGI scripts? (Choose two.)
A. It links source pages to the appropriate client compiler.
B. It implements suid and makes the script excitable.
C. It defines content types based on the extension.
D. It references directories that contain the scripts.
Answer: C, D

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NO.8 If a user has already defined a log format called "common, "which of the following directives will
ALWAYS make Apache log requests to "/var/log/apache/access_log" using the " common" format?
A. TransferLog /var/log/apache/access_log format=common
B. TransferLog /var/log/apache/access_log common
C. CustomLog /var/log/apache/access_log format=common
D. CustomLog /var/log/apache/access_log common
Answer: D

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NO.9 Liz has completed an Apache installation on her computer. She did not encounter any errors. Which of
the following can she use to see Apache's default index? (Choose two.)
A. http://localserver
B. http://localhost
C. http://index
D. http://192.268.0.0
E. http://127.0.0.1
Answer: B, E

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NO.10 Which of the following can be used send to used to send a cookie to the http client? (Choose two.)
A. XMLScript
B. Static HTM
C. Java Script
D. CGI scripts
E. GIFScript
Answer: C, D

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NO.11 The block of code below is found in the http conf file. Under what conditions would this block of code
execute?
<If Module !PHP/4.0>
...
</If Module>
A. If PHP/4.0 is NOT compiled or loaded into Apache when the block of code is called
B. If PHP/4.0 is NOT compiled or loaded in the module's shared library when the block of code is called
C. If PHP/4.0 is compiled or loaded into Apache when the block of code is called
D. If PHP/4.0 is compiled or loaded in the module's shared library when the block of code is called
Answer: A

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NO.12 Jake has the text below in his httpd conf file. He does NOT have mod_mime_magic compiled as part
of
the Apache server configuration. Which of the following are TRUE concerning this information? (Choose
two.)
LoadModule vhost_alias_module modules/mod_vhost _alias.so
# LoadModule env_module modules/mod_env.so
# LoadModule agent_log_module modules/mod_log_agent.so
# LoadModule mime_magic_module modules/mod_mime_magic.so
# LoadModule mime_module modules/mod_mime_magic.s
<IFModeule mod_mime_magic.c>
MIOMEMagicFile share/magic
</ifModule>
A. The MIMEMagicFile directive will be processed.
B. The MIMEMagicFile directive will NOT be processed.
C. The server will NOT be able to use hints in share/magic to determine file types.
D. The server will be able to use hints in share/magic to determine file types.
Answer: B, C

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NO.13 Which of the following are TRUE regarding contains in httpd.com? (Choose two.)
A. Containers consist of a Paired set of delimiters.
B. If two containers contradict, the first is applied.
C. Containers may only be applied globally.
D. Containers allow individual virtual hosts to have their own settings.
Answer: A, D

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NO.14 Which of the following best explains why Apache Web servers are able to handles multiple requests?
A. In addition to port 80, Apache opens ports 8080,8000, and others to handle the additional requests.
B. Apache is able to spawn child processes that handle requests before they die.
C. Apache uses the renice service to load balance between different system daemons.
D. Upon reaching a set number of requests, Apache uses a raw socket to adjust a system's bandwidth to
handle
the additional requests.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The system administrator has configured Apache to write its log files via the system logging daemon.
When Apache write its log files to syslog, it will run with the permissions of which user?
A. Always as root
B. Always as nobody
C. Always as webuser
D. Always as the owner of the http process
E. Always as the owner of the syslogd process
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following scenarios most accurately describes the Apache initialization sequence?
A. Apache spawns one child process each second until MaxSpareServer is satisfied or MaxClients is
reached.
B. Apache spawns one child, then two, then four, and up to 32 processes per seconds until MaxClients is
reached or Minspare Servers is satisfied.
C. Apache spawns one process then continues to double the number of processes spawned each second
indefinitely until MaxClients is reached or MinSpareServers is satisfied.
D. Apache spawns the needed number of child processes dependent on the incoming requests until
MaxClients
is reached or MinSpareServer is satisfied. For example, if three requests come in, Apache would spawn
three
processes, and soon.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Consider the file "test.html". Which of the following best describes what code does?
<html>
<from>
<INPUT TYPE=" button" VALUE="set cookie"
onClick = "document. Cookie =`first_name=Fred`;">
<INPUT TYPE = "button" VALUE = "display cookie"
onClick = "alert (document.cokkie);">
</from>
</html>
A. When the user clicks on "set cookie," it prompts the user for value. Once the value is entered, it can be
displayed using the "display cookie" button.
B. When the user clicks on "set cookie," the first_name cookie is set to "Fred." The first_name cookie can
be
displayed by clicking the "display cookie" button.
C. When the user first loads "test.html," first_name is automatically set to "Fred." The value of first_name
can
be seen with the "display cookie" button. The first_name cookie can be reset to empty ("") by clicking the
"set
cookie" button.
D. When the user clicks on the "set cookie" button, a new HTML page is loaded that displays the word
"Fred".
When the user clicks on the "display cookie" button, it alerts the user that it has been deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following HTTP headers will direct a browser to www.site.com after
waiting five seconds?
A. Rewrite 5; URL = http://www.site.com/
B. Location 5; URL = http://www.site.com/
C. Refresh 5; URL = http://www.site.com/
D. Reload http://www.site.com/ -t 5
E. Direct -t 5 http://www.site.com/
Answer: C

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NO.19 Tom would like to group all of his CGI scripts to /lib/cgi-bin/. In order to do this, he needs to use the
ScriptAlias directive in the httpd.conf file of his Apache server. What modules need to be compiled in
order for this to work? (Choose two.)
A. mod_cgi.c or any module that supports the common gateway interface
B. mod_bin.c
C. mod_negotiation.c or any module that does protocol negotiation
D. mod_alias.c
E. mod_script.c or any module that does script parsing
Answer: A, D

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NO.20 Cookies can be used by Apache to create a click stream log of user activity.
However, for the cookies to work, Apache must be compiled with the _______
module, then the ______ directive must be added to the httpd.conf file.
A. mod_usertrack; Cookie Tracking on
B. mod_cookies; Cookies on
C. mod_cookietracking; cookie Tracking on
D. mod_cookielog; Cookielogging on
E. mod_userlog, cookielogging on
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following would most likely represent the best class for classifying VoIP traffic?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:A

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NO.2 A QoS policy defines three classes of service including the class "default".The class "default" should
have a DSCP marking of default value and act as a "catchall" for traffic.Which of the following QoS DSCP
rules is correct?
A.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src 10.0.0.4 dest 10.0.0.1 dscp 12 rulenum 3
B.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src 10.0.0.4 dest 10.0.0.1 dscp 0 rulenum 1
C.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp default rulenum 3
D.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp 0 rulenum 1
E.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp 0 rulenum 3
Answer:E

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NO.3 Of the following, which class priority is defined for the "default" QoS class?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:D

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NO.4 What types of IPSec encryption ciphers are supported by default on the Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A.DES
B.3DES
C.AES
D.NULL
E.RC2
Answer:ADB

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NO.5 What does CIFS transparent prepopulation require in order to be configured? (Select 3)
A.Join Windows Domain
B.Remote Shared Path
C.Credentials
D.Schedule
E.Data Center Steelhead IP
Answer:BCD

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NO.6 Asymmetric Route Detection configured on the client-side Steelhead appliance examines which of the
following TCP flags to determine if route asymmetry has occurred?
A.RST
B.FIN
C.PSH
D.URG
Answer:A

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NO.7 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
(Select 3)
A.When inactive flows have remained for 15 seconds
B.When inactive flows have remained for 30 minutes
C.When active flows have remained for 30 minutes
D.When the TCP URG bit is set
E.When the TCP FIN bit is set
Answer:ACE

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NO.8 What are the available interfaces to use for NetFlow export on a Steelhead appliance with a 4-port
card? (Select 2)
A.WAN0_0
B.WAN1_0
C.Primary
D.LAN0_0
E.AUX
Answer:CE

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NO.9 What version of NetFlow does Riverbed RiOS support?
A.NetFlow v1
B.NetFlow v5
C.NetFlow v7
D.NetFlow v8
E.NetFlow v9
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which of the following QoS mechanisms are supported in the Steelhead appliance? (Select 4)
A.NBAR
B.Traffic Shaping
C.Prioritization
D.Classification
E.Marking
Answer:BCDE

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NO.11 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node.Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical5
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands correctly define the mission-critical class as well as classify optimized
traffic from the 192.12.12.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority realtime min-pct 10
B.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority interactive min-pct 10
C.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add rulenum 2 class-name mission-critical traffic-type passthrough source subnet
192.12.12.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080
E.qos classification rule add rulenum 2 class-name mission-critical traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.12.12.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080
Answer:CE

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NO.12 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
A.When the TCP FIN bit is set
B.When the TCP PSH bit is set
C.When the TCP RST bit is set
D.A and C
E.A and B
F.None of the above
Answer:D

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NO.13 What are the key benefits of Scalable Data Referencing (SDR)? (Select 2)
A.Reduces data sent across the WAN
B.Reduces data sent across the LAN
C.Speed up data transfers across the WAN
D.Speed up data transfers across the LAN
E.Speed up all UDP connections across the WAN
Answer:AC

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NO.14 What value (in hexadecimal) is added to the TCP option field by the client-side Steelhead appliance
during auto-discovery?
A.0x76
B.0xFC
C.0x4C
D.0xEC
Answer:C

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NO.15 Upon implementing a NetFlow based reporting solution, your auditing department asks you why it takes
30 minutes for active data flows to report back to the NetFlow collector, and if you can change it to 15
minutes. Which of the following CLI commands can be used to change the export timer for active flows to
15 minutes? (Hint: Use the calculator)
A.ip flow-setting active_to 900
B.ip flow-setting active_to 15
C.ip netflow active_to 30
D.ip netflow active_to 900
E.The export time of 30 minutes cannot be changed
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node. Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands best defines the transactional class as well as classify all traffic from
the 192.16.16.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority business min-pct 20
B.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority low min-pct 20
C.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.16.16.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port all rulenum 1
E.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type all source subnet 192.16.16.0/24 port all
destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 rulenum 3
Answer:AE

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NO.17 Which of the following may cause Asymmetric Route Detection?
A.Receiving an RST packet from the client with an invalid sequence number while the connection is in the
SYN_SENT state
B.Receiving a SYN/ACK packet from the server with an invalid ACK number while the connection is in the
SYN_SENT state
C.Receiving an ACK packet from the client while the connection is in the SYN_SENT state
D.Receiving SYN retransmits from the client
E.All of the above
Answer:E

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NO.18 Data for inactive flows will get exported to a NetFlow collector after 15 seconds of flow inactivity. In order
to reduce the amount of traffic sent across the WAN, you would like to increase this value to 1 minute.
Which of the following CLI commands can be used to change the export timer for inactive flows to 1
minute? (Hint: Use the calculator)
A.ip netflow inactive_to 60
B.ip flow-setting inactive_to 60
C.ip netflow inactive_to 1
D.ip flow-setting inactive_to 1
E.The export time of 15 seconds cannot be changed
Answer:B

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NO.19 Assuming the default settings for Connection Forwarding, how long does it take for a Steelhead
appliance to declare a neighbor is down?
A.10 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.20 seconds
D.25 seconds
E.30 seconds
Answer:E

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NO.20 Which of the following are a complete list of in-path rule types available for configuration on a
Steelhead appliance?
A.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target
B.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, discard
C.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, discard, deny
D.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, forced peer, discard, deny
Answer:C

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Exam Name: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Service Orchestration Exam)

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NO.1 The operation lifecycle of a service consists of three phases. Which phases are these?
A. Context, Content, Security
B. Qualification, Delivery, Return
C. Automation, Provisioning, Orchestration
D. Composition, Administration, Security
Answer: B

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NO.2 An XP machine with the German version of Windows XP is connecting to the Orchestration Service. In
which language will the client start up?
A. German
B. English
C. French
D. Dutch
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator has configured several modules and run books in Automation Manager to install
applications unattended. The administrator wants that users can request these applications themselves
via Service Orchestration The administrator has already installed the Console. Datastore and Web Client
How can the administrator link the Orchestration Service to Automation Manager.?
A. In Automation Manager, go to the Interaction tab and configure the Orchestration Service pluguin
B. In the Orchestration Console, go to Setup > Datastore and select an Automation Manager environment
C. In the Transaction Engine, select an Automation Manager dispatcher.
D. In the Catalog Service, select the Automation Manager Integration tab and select "enable "
Answer: B

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Exam Code: RH133
Exam Name: RedHat (Red Hat Linux System Administration)

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NO.1 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You are a root user on the Linux system. You have to create a user named Trinity and deny interactive
login. Which of the following should you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. vi /etc/passwd
B. vi /etc/shadow
C. useradd Trinity
D. passwd Trinity
E. Trinity:x:505:505::/home/Trinity:/sbin/nonlogin
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.2 You work as a Linux Technician for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You have configured a database server in the network. Users complain that the server has
become remarkably slow. However, the previous day, the server was performing well. You know that
some of the processes may be the cause of the issue. You run the PS command on the server. In the
result set, which information will you look at that suggests the problematic process?
A. A high load average
B. A high process ID
C. A low load average
D. A low CPU time
E. A high CPU time
Answer: E

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NO.3 You want to make Rick an owner of the files TRADE1.TXT and TRDREPORT.TXT. Which of the
following commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. chown rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT
B. chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT
C. chown rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT
D. chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to verify the PGP signature of all headers and signatures associated with an RPM package.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. rpm -e
B. rpm -K
C. rpm --checksig
D. rpm -V
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to run the cc process at
runlevel three. If the order of execution of cc command is 43, which of the following commands will John
use to accomplish his task?
A. ln -s /etc/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc
B. ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc
C. ln -s /etc/rc.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/s43cc
D. ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/S43cc
Answer: D

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NO.6 You want only the root access in a Linux computer for maintenance purposes. Which of the following
runlevels will you use to boot the computer?
A. 2
B. 0
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.7 By default, which of the following commands configures the current run level?
A. chkconfig
B. pstree
C. service
D. ntsysv
Answer: D

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NO.8 CORRECT TEXT
Drag and drop the appropriate command in front of its respective function.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for Rick Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are
configuring a Linux server. Which of the following bootloaders does not require to be rewritten after the
configuration of the kernel has been changed?
A. GRUB
B. BOOTP
C. LILO
D. ELILO
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following fsck commands will you use to check all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab?
A. fsck -P
B. fsck -f
C. fsck -A
D. fsck -y
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following commands can be used to compress a file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. gzip
B. compress
C. tar
D. zip
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 You work as a Software Engineer for McNiel Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. The
company has 150 Engineers. The root user has configured quota limits for each user. You want to view
quota limits for your system. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. repquota -a
B. quota -v
C. quotacheck
D. edquota
Answer: B

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for Secure Web Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
The network has a mixed set of client operating systems. You want to format a new hard disk drive. The
drive will have only one partition. Both the Linux and Windows operating systems will access the partition.
Which of the following file systems will you use?
A. VFAT
B. XFS
C. REISER
D. EXT3
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following commands displays a module name or filename and associated
information, such as the authors name, license, description, module version, dependencies, parameters,
etc?
A. modprobe
B. lsmod
C. modprob
D. modinfo
Answer: D

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You are configuring a server that will be used as a file server. You want to install an RPM package, named
FILELOCATOR, on the server. You want to check whether the package is already installed. Which of the
following commands will you use?
A. grep FILELOCATOR
B. find -q rpm |grep FILELOCATOR
C. rpm -qa | grep FILELOCATOR
D. find FILELOCATOR
Answer: C

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NO.16 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. He is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to add a soft limit quota
warning for the users, in which, after exceeding the quota value, a user will receive e-mail warnings about
being over quotA. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. repquota
B. quotaon
C. warnquota
D. edquota
E. quotaoff
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Fill in the blank with the appropriate command.
The ________ command recursively removes files, which have not been accessed for a period oftime.
A. tmpwatch
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following commands can be used to modify kernel parameters at runtime?
A. sync
B. sysctl
C. mkinitrd
D. lsdev
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following commands can be used to check the errors of the ext2 and ext3
filesystems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. fsck --ext2
B. fsck.ext3
C. fsck --ext3
D. e2fsck
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Which of following options will you use to force mtr to display numeric IP numbers and not try to
resolve the host names?
A. -t
B. -n
C. -l
D. -p
Answer: B

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NO.21 After enabling shadowed passwords in a Linux server, where does Linux keep the passwords?
A. /usr/shadow
B. /etc/passwd
C. /usr/passwd
D. /etc/shadow
Answer: D

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NO.22 What is the minimum RAM requirement for installing Red Hat in GUI mode?
A. 1GB
B. 512 MB
C. 128MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of the following commands will you run to list all files that have been modified within the last 60
minutes?
A. find /etc -name *.txt
B. find start -dir -min -60
C. find start -dir -cmin -60
D. find start -cmin -60
Answer: C

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NO.24 When installing RHEL in the graphical interface, which of the following switches can be used to specify
a resolution?
A. lowers
B. vnc
C. resolution
D. skipddc
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following commands is used to create a user account for a new user?
A. USERMOD
B. MOUNT
C. USERADD
D. CRUSER
Answer: C

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NO.26 You work as a System Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux based network.
You are a root user on Red Hat operating system. You have upgraded the amount of RAM in your system
from 256 MB to 512 MB, but there is only 512 MB of swap space. Therefore, you want to add more swap
space to /dev/hdb2 hard drive to run the applications that require a large amount of memory. Which of the
following commands should you run to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mkswap /dev/hdb2
B. swapon /dev/hdb2
C. mount
D. parted
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.27 Which of the following statements are true about kernel modules?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kernel modules do not support executable loaders.
B. The kernel module contains extra kernel codes that may be loaded after the loading of the basekernel.
Only a minimal resident kernel is loaded into memory at boot time.
C. Kernel modules do not support the device drivers, network drivers, and file system drivers.
D. Whenever a user requests a feature that is not present in the resident kernel, a kernel moduleis
dynamically loaded into memory.
Answer: B,D

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NO.28 After creating the swap area, which of the following commands will you need to run to start using it?
A. mkswap
B. mkfs
C. swapon
D. swapoff
Answer: C

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NO.29 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Linux-based
network. You want to upgrade an RPM package and get the status during the upgrade. Which of the
following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. rpm -ivh
B. rpm -evh
C. rpm -qvh
D. rpm -Uvh
Answer: D

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NO.30 You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In
this process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be
reinstated. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. chgrp
B. newgrp
C. chmod
D. chown
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-051
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I)

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NO.1 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D

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NO.4 View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB

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NO.5 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS "TOTAL PRICE"
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B

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NO.6 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera's category is Photo
Y Box's category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador's category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q'''s category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q'['s ]'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q'\'s\' ' category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q'<'s >' 'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD

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NO.7 You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, t he customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
"New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS "New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP("NEW CREDIT LIMIT")
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

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NO.9 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS "NAME", cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS "MAX
LOWER LIMIT"
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A

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NO.10 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

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NO.11 View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ' joined on ' hiredate
', the total compensation paid is '
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
"COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE"
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D

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NO.13 View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE

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NO.15 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

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NO.16 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE

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NO.17 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE

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NO.19 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

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NO.20 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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Exam Code: 1Z1-202
Exam Name: Oracle (Siebel 8 Consultant Exam)

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NO.1 Which represents a business entity and groups data from one or more tables?
A.Applet
B.Application
C.Business object
D.Business component
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are creating a new view in Siebel Tools. When you attempt to add applets, you do not see the
applet you want to add listed in the Available Applets list. Which two would cause this? (Choose two.)
A.You failed to assign a Project.
B.You picked the wrong Web Template.
C.You selected the wrong Business Object for the view.
D.The applet object definition has Inactive set to FALSE.
E.The Business Component that the applet is based on is not part of the Business Object the view is
based on.
Answer: CE

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NO.3 When should you use explicit primaries through Enterprise Integration Manager?
A.when there is only one child record in the dataset
B.any time you have more than one child record in the dataset
C.when the external system defines which child record should be the primary
D.when the external system does not define which child record should be the primary
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two clients obtain initialization settings from both the configuration file and Application Object
Manager component parameters? (Choose two.)
A.Web Client
B.Handheld Client
C.Mobile Web Client
D.Wireless Web Client
E.Dedicated Web Client
Answer: AD

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NO.5 You are considering using the ATTRIB_02 column on the S_SRV_REQ_X table and you want to
determine which, if any, business component field is already using this column. What would you do?
A.Use Search Repository, select Column as the Type and enter ATTRIB_02 as the value.
B.Use the Flat tab, select the Field type, and search the Column property for ATTRIB_02 and the Join
property for S_SRV_REQ_X
C. Use the Flat tab, select the Column type, and search the Name property for ATTRIB_02.
D. Use the Types tab, search for Service* business components, inspect each of their Single Value Fields.
E. Use the Types tab, select the Service Request business component, then Single Value Field, and
search the Column property for ATTRIB_02.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can you verify the High Interactivity client environment after installation?
A.Run Health Check.
B.Run Environment Verification Test.
C.Examine the Siebel Web Client registry file.
D.Rerun the Installation Program and select Verify.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement about views and responsibilities is true?
A.Multiple responsibilities may share views.
B.Manager and User responsibilities will have completely different views.
C.Users have access to the views associated with only one responsibility at a time.
D.Each responsibility assigned to a user must have entirely separate views assigned.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does the Component Reconfiguration feature allow you to do?
A.Change component parameters without interrupting users.
B.Activate reconfigured components at the next server restart.
C.Move server components from one server to another without interrupting users.
D.Stop all current instances of a component and restart them with new parameters.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are creating a new child business component to support displaying promotional items that have
been sent to Contacts. What type of table do you base the new business component on?
A.The base table of the parent business component.
B.Standard interface tables supplied by Siebel.
C.Standard 1:M extension tables supplied by Siebel.
D.New tables that you create with the Business Component wizard.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which Server Administration feature can be configured to notify the Administrator when a server
component reaches an undesired state?
A.Audit trail
B.System Alerts
C.Siebel State Model
D.Component Event Logging
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is true about directory server authentication?
A.It is the default authentication method for Siebel applications.
B.It typically uses a single reserved database login for all users.
C.User authentication is performed by a third-party service at the Web server level.
D.It does not require additional infrastructure components, such as security adapters.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which object definitions in the Business Layer do List columns and controls in the UI Layer reference?
A.Fields
B.Columns
C.Business objects
D.Business components
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have been asked to create a multi-value group for contacts phone numbers. What should your first
step in this configuration be?
A.Create a new business component to store these phone numbers.
B.Determine which column on the base table you can use to store these phone numbers.
C.Determine which column on the one-to-many extension table you can use to store these phone
numbers.
D.Run the MVG Wizard in Siebel Tools, specify the business component, and have it automatically select
the appropriate column.
E.Examine the existing application to determine whether there is already a multi-value group you could
leverage to store phone numbers.
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which Siebel business entity represents businesses external to your company that could be a current
or potential client, business partner, or competitor?
A.Contact
B.Account
C.Position
D.Opportunity
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which Siebel business entity represents people with whom you do business?
A.User
B.Contact
C.Position
D.Opportunity
Answer: B

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NO.16 You need to search Service Requests in your workflow. You add a Siebel Operation step.
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.You set the Operation property to Query.
B.You set the Operation property to Search.
C.You set the Operation Property to Update.
D.You set the Business Object property to Service Request.
E.You set the Business Component property to Service Request.
Answer: AE

Oracle   1Z1-202   1Z1-202

NO.17 Which describes database authentication?
A.It is the default authentication method for Siebel applications.
B.It typically uses a single reserved database login for all users.
C.It requires additional infrastructure components, such as security adapters.
D.User authentication is performed by a third-party service at the Web server level.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three products do you have the option of installing with the Siebel Enterprise Server Installer?
(Choose three.)
A.Siebel Tools
B.Siebel Server
C.Siebel Web Client
D.Sample Database
E.Gateway Name Server
F.Siebel Web Server Extensions
G.Database Configuration Utilities
Answer: BEG

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NO.19 Which authentication method allows for self-registration by Web users?
A.Web Single Sign On
B.database authentication
C.Windows authentication
D.Directory Server authentication
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Assignment Mode filters all qualified organizations and persons and then assigns only those that
have corresponding persons and organizations that meet the criteria?
A.Independent
B.Organization-oriented
C.Person-oriented
D.Org & person-oriented
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-032
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle9l database:fundamentals ii)

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NO.1 In which scenario would you open the database with the RESETLOGS option after recovering the
database in NOARCHIVELOG mode?
A.when the control file is corrupted
B.when the SYSTEM data file is corrupted
C.when a nonsystem data file is corrupted
D.when the redo log files were not backed up
E.when there are no backups available to be restored
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which backups can be performed without shutting down the instance? (Choose all that apply.)
A.an image copy backup
B.a backup of the database running in NOARCHIVELOG mode
C.a backup of dictionary-managed tablespace if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D.a backup of the database when all read/write datafiles and control files are checkpointed with respect to
the same system change number (SCN).
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Because your business requirements do not permit you to shut down the database to perform backups,
you decide to perform online backups. You use the ALTER TABLESPACE .. BEGIN BACKUP command
to perform the backups. The command returns the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01123: cannot start online backup; media recovery not enabled
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The database is in the MOUNT state.
B.The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
C.The command was executed on the SYSTEM tablespace.
D.The command was executed on a temporary tablespace.
E.The command was executed on a read-only tablespace.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP is set to ON, RMAN automatically performs a
control file autobackup in which three situations? (Choose three.)
A.at the end of every RUN block
B.after every SET CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP FORMAT command
C.after every BACKUP or COPY command issued at the RMAN prompt
D.at the end of every RUN block if the last command in the block was either BACKUP or COPY
E.whenever a BACKUP or COPY command within a RUN block is followed by a command that is neither
BACKUP nor COPY
F.after every BACKUP or COPY command within a RUN block that is followed by the CONFIGURE
CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP FORMAT command
Answer: CDE

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NO.5 You are using Recovery Manager (RMAN) to maintain daily backups of your database, which is running
in ARCHIVELOG mode. In which two scenarios would you perform an incomplete database recovery
using UNTIL TIME from the backups that you maintain using RMAN? (Choose two.)
A.when a table is dropped
B.when a table is truncated
C.when the SYSTEM tablespace is corrupted
D.when the data block in a nonsystem tablespace is corrupted
E.when a data file that belongs to a nonsystem tablespace is corrupted
Answer: AB

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NO.6 You are using RMAN to perform a backup of your database. Which statement is true regarding image
copy backups?
A.Image copy backups cannot be parallelized.
B.An image copy can be written only to tape.
C.An image copy backup is performed by using the RMAN BACKUP command.
D.During an image copy backup, blocks are checked to make sure that they are not corrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which user-managed backup performed on your database can be labeled as consistent?
A.a backup performed when the database is open
B.a backup performed on a tablespace after putting the tablespace into backup mode
C.a backup performed when the database is closed by using the SHUTDOWN ABORT command
D.a backup performed when all data files and control files are checkpointed with respect to the same
system change number (SCN)
Answer: D

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NO.8 You plan to perform a backup of the control file in your database. Which two statements regarding the
control file backup are true? (Choose two.)
A.You can back up the control file to a binary file.
B.You must bring the database to the NOMOUNT state to perform the control file backup.
C.You must store all types of control file backups in the location defined by USER_DUMP_DEST.
D.You can back up the control file by generating a script that can be used to re-create the control file.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 You want to perform a backup of the control file by using the following command:
ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
In which situation would the command fail?
A.The database is in the MOUNT state.
B.The database is in the NOMOUNT state.
C.The database has multiplexed control files
D.The database is opened and is in read-only mode.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You work on a database that is used for application development and operates in ARCHIVELOG mode.
As a DBA, you know that database downtime can be tolerated and have designed a backup strategy
containing a weekly closed database backup. The local naming method is used by clients to connect to
the database.
Which files should you include in this weekly user-managed backup? (Choose all that apply.)
A.control file
B.sqlnet.ora file
C.archived log files
D.tnsnames.ora file
E.listener configuration file
Answer: AC

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NO.11 You work on a database that is used for application development and operates in NOARCHIVELOG
mode. The database has 10 tablespaces out of which two are read only. As a DBA, you know that
database downtime can be tolerated and have designed a backup strategy containing a weekly closed
database backup.
Which files can you exclude from the weekly user-managed backup? (Choose all that apply.)
A.control files
B.sqlnet.ora file
C.tnsnames.ora file
D.data files associated with read-only tablespaces
E.data files associated with read/write tablespaces
Answer: BCD

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NO.12 Your database contains 10 tablespaces and is functioning in NOARCHIVELOG mode. You want to
use Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform backups. Which two backups would you be able to perform
when the database is being accessed by users? (Choose two.)
A.backup of offline tablespaces
B.backup of read-only tablespaces
C.backup of system-critical tablespaces
D.backup of online, locally managed tablespaces
E.backup of read/write, dictionary-managed tablespaces
Answer: AB

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NO.13 You started your database at 7:30 a.m. and you backed up three copies of all existing archived log
files to tape at 9:00 a.m. At 10:30 a.m., you executed the following command:
RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 4;
At 1:00 p.m., you executed the following commands:
RMAN> CONFIGURE BACKUP OPTIMIZATION ON;
RMAN> BACKUP DEVICE TYPE sbt COPIES 2 ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Other RMAN configuration parameters are set to their default values. Which statement is correct?
A.RMAN would back up the logs which do not have four copies until 1:00 p.m.
B.RMAN would back up all logs that were created between 7:30 a.m. and 1:00 p.m.
C.RMAN would back up all logs that were created between 10:30 a.m. and 1:00 p.m.
D.RMAN would back up all logs that were not backed up, with two copies for logs created before 1:00
p.m.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which option must you specify in the sqlnet.ora file on the client machines to enable clients to use the
host naming method?
A.names.addresses
B.names.default_domain
C.names.directory_path
D.names.preferred_servers
E.sqlnet.authentication_services
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have set the control file autobackup to ON by using the following command in the Recovery
Manager (RMAN):
CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;
Which two events would cause the control file to be backed up automatically? (Choose two.)
A.when a tablespace is added
B.when the database instance is restarted
C.when a successful backup is recorded in the RMAN repository
D.when the RMAN connection is disconnected from the target database
Answer: AC

Oracle   1Z0-032   1Z0-032   1Z0-032 exam

NO.16 While starting up the database on a Monday morning, you get the following error after the database is
mounted:
ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 9 - see DBWR trace file
ORA-01110: data file 9: '/u01/oracle/app/oradata/orcl/users01.dbf'
While investigating, you realize that a backup of the data file (users01.dbf) exists. Which data dictionary
view would you use to locate the archived redo log files that are required for recovery?
A.V$ARCHIVED_LOG
B.V$RECOVERY_LOG
C.V$RECOVER_FILE
D.V$RECOVERY_STATUS
Answer: B

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NO.17 Last Friday, you performed a closed database backup of your database that is running in
NOARCHIVELOG mode. On Monday morning, you discover that the media that contains one of the data
files is corrupted. Now, you need to recover your database.
Which two tasks would you perform before you start recovering the database? (Choose two.)
A.restore all data files
B.restore password files
C.restore the control files
D.restore the redo log files
E.restore the parameter file
F.restore the server parameter file
G.restore the corrupted data file only
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which two statements regarding backup sets are true? (Choose two.)
A.A backup set may contain both data files and control files.
B.Each file in a backup set must have the same Oracle block size.
C.A backup set may contain both data files and archived redo log files.
D.A backup set may contain both a control file and archived redo log files.
Answer: AB

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NO.19 Which three features are provided by Oracle Net Services? (Choose three.)
A.data encryption
B.user authentication
C.transparent data conversion
D.configuration and administration mechanisms
E.support for multiple network transport protocols
Answer: CDE

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NO.20 SQL*Loader is a utility that can perform which two tasks? (Choose two.)
A.load data from a disk, tape, or named pipes
B.load data into an Oracle database using DML statements
C.extract, reorganize, and insert data within an Oracle database
D.load data from external files into tables in an Oracle database
E.load data into an Oracle database using operating system commands
F.load data directly from a non-Oracle database to an Oracle database
Answer: AD

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